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QUESTION 71
Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

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QUESTION 31
Your customer wants to configure LSCs and asks for specific information about which number to configure in the text box right next to the “Number of Attempts”. Which statement is true?

A.    The default number of attempts is 100.
B.    A value of 2 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC, the AP attempts to Join the Cisco WLC using the default certificate
C.    A value of 255 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC,the AP does not attempt to join the Cisco WLC using the default .
D.    A value of 3 means that if a user fails to authenticate,the user is disconnected after three retries. » Read more

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given command sequence? » Read more

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QUESTION 31
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    XML
B.    RIB
C.    FIB
D.    QoS
E.    PFI

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QUESTION 41
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing loT capabities? (Choose three.)

A.    Layered Security Appoach.
B.    Place security above functionality.
C.    Define lifecycle controls for loT devices.
D.    Privacy impact Assessment.
E.    Change passwords every 90 days.
F.    Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on loT devices.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 42
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

A.    offset-list
B.    neighbor
C.    address-family
D.    stub

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

431

A.    broadcast
B.    Ethernet
C.    multipoint
D.    point-to-point

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?

A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service.
B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software applications.
D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems.

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?

A.    It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
B.    It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
C.    It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
D.    It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?

A.    255
B.    64
C.    10
D.    128

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature? (Choose two.)

A.    the capture rate
B.    the capture point
C.    the capture buffer
D.    the buffer memory size
E.    the capture filter
F.    the capture file export location

Answer: BC

QUESTION 48
When you configure an IPv6 IPsec tunnel, which two fields can represent the ISAKMP identity of a peer? (Choose two)

A.    Authentication method
B.    DH group identifier
C.    Hostname
D.    IPv6 address
E.    Encryption algorithm

Answer: CD

QUESTION 49
Which action enables passive interfaces in RIPv6(RIPng)?

A.    Use “passive-interface default” under the routing process.
B.    Enable passive-interface on interface configuration.
C.    passive interface are not supported in RIPng.
D.    Enable passive-interface for each interface under the routing process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 50
Which statement is true about IGMP?

A.    Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
B.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages to the RP.
C.    IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
D.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast groups.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 41
Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)

A.    The ephone hunt group is mandatory.
B.    Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable.
C.    Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones.
D.    Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones.
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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 31
A security consultant decides to use multiple layers of anti-virus defense, such as end user desktop anti- virus and E-mail gateway. This approach can be used to mitigate which kind of attack?

A.    Forensic attack
B.    ARP spoofing attack
C.    Social engineering attack
D.    Scanning attack

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which of the following resources does NMAP need to be used as a basic vulnerability scanner covering several vectors like SMB, HTTP and FTP?

A.    Metasploit scripting engine
B.    Nessus scripting engine
C.    NMAP scripting engine
D.    SAINT scripting engine

Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following scanning tools is specifically designed to find potential exploits in Microsoft Windows products?

A.    Microsoft Security Baseline Analyzer
B.    Retina
C.    Core Impact
D.    Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
A security analyst is performing an audit on the network to determine if there are any deviations from the security policies in place. The analyst discovers that a user from the IT department had a dial-out modem installed. Which security policy must the security analyst check to see if dial-out modems are allowed?

A.    Firewall-management policy
B.    Acceptable-use policy
C.    Remote-access policy
D.    Permissive policy

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
When creating a security program, which approach would be used if senior management is supporting and enforcing the security policy?

A.    A bottom-up approach
B.    A top-down approach
C.    A senior creation approach
D.    An IT assurance approach

Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which of the following processes evaluates the adherence of an organization to its stated security policy?

A.    Vulnerability assessment
B.    Penetration testing
C.    Risk assessment
D.    Security auditing

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A security consultant is trying to bid on a large contract that involves penetration testing and reporting. The company accepting bids wants proof of work so the consultant prints out several audits that have been performed. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result?

A.    The consultant will ask for money on the bid because of great work.
B.    The consultant may expose vulnerabilities of other companies.
C.    The company accepting bids will want the same type of format of testing.
D.    The company accepting bids will hire the consultant because of the great work performed.

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which type of scan is used on the eye to measure the layer of blood vessels?

A.    Facial recognition scan
B.    Retinal scan
C.    Iris scan
D.    Signature kinetics scan

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack?

A.    The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique.
B.    Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy.
C.    A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”.
D.    A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric.

Answer: D

QUESTION 40
During a wireless penetration test, a tester detects an access point using WPA2 encryption. Which of the following attacks should be used to obtain the key?

A.    The tester must capture the WPA2 authentication handshake and then crack it.
B.    The tester must use the tool inSSIDer to crack it using the ESSID of the network.
C.    The tester cannot crack WPA2 because it is in full compliance with the IEEE 802.11i standard.
D.    The tester must change the MAC address of the wireless network card and then use the AirTraf tool to obtain the key.

Answer: A

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